I’ve tried to ask this before, in other threads where it wasn’t exactly the subject. And it’s still something I’m wondering about.
Does insulin response to a sweet taste change if no sugar is forthcoming?
As a for instance, I put stevia in my tea. I never put anything but stevia in my tea. There is no sugar, ever. Time after time, it’s stevia, not sugar. Would my body continually be fooled, time after time after time, when I taste sweet and it gets stevia, not sugar?
When a person is waking down the street and someone flashes a paper tiger in front of them and scares the bejeebers out of 'em, there is going to be a huge adrenaline rush. That’s kinda the way it works. If it happens every day, same paper tiger, same non-event when said tiger doesn’t eat them, after a while, there is pretty much no adrenaline rush at all. The person adapts.
Question is, does that same kind of thing happen over time with stevia in my tea or other similar things that happen over and over?
It’s just something I wondered about. Probably didn’t put it into words as well as I wish I could but hopefully, you get the idea of what I’m wondering about.
Curious about your thoughts.